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NEW QUESTION # 56
While planning a vulnerability assessment on a computer network, which of the following is essential?
(Choose two.)
- A. Identifying exposures
- B. Identifying critical assets
- C. Establishing scope
- D. Installing antivirus software
- E. Running scanning tools
Answer: A,C
NEW QUESTION # 57
Which of the following are components of Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP)?
- A. CWE, CWSS, and OVAL
- B. CVM, NVD, and OSVDB
- C. CVE, CVSS, and OSVDB
- D. CVE, CVSS, and OVAL
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 58
Recently, a cybersecurity research lab discovered that there is a hacking group focused on hacking into the computers of financial executives in Company A to sell the exfiltrated information to Company B.
Which of the
following threat motives does this MOST likely represent?
- A. Desire for financial gain
- B. Reputation/recognition
- C. Association/affiliation
- D. Desire for power
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 59
Malicious code designed to execute in concurrence with a particular event is BEST defined as which of the following?
- A. Backdoor
- B. Logic bomb
- C. Trojan
- D. Rootkit
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 60
A company that maintains a public city infrastructure was breached and information about future city projects was leaked. After the post-incident phase of the process has been completed, which of the following would be PRIMARY focus of the incident response team?
- A. Inform the company board about the incident.
- B. Determine effective policy changes.
- C. Restore service and eliminate the business impact.
- D. Contact the city police for official investigation.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 61
The NIST framework 800-137 breaks down the concept of continuous monitoring into which system of tiers?
- A. Tier 1 is the organization, Tier 2 is mission/business processes, and Tier 3 is information systems.
- B. Tier 1 is information systems, Tier 2 is mission/business processes, and Tier 3 is the organization.
- C. Tier 1 is information systems, Tier 2 is the organization, and Tier 3 is mission/business processes.
- D. Tier 1 is the organization, Tier 2 is information systems, and Tier 3 is mission/business processes.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The NIST 800-137 framework for continuous monitoring categorizes monitoring activities into three tiers:
Tier 1: Information systems, where monitoring focuses on the status and performance of individual systems.
Tier 2: Mission/business processes, which monitor the operations and processes necessary to support organizational missions.
Tier 3: The organization, where overall strategic goals and enterprise-wide risks are assessed and managed.
NEW QUESTION # 62
Which of the following could be useful to an organization that wants to test its incident response procedures without risking any system downtime?
- A. Tabletop exercise
- B. Blue team exercise
- C. Business continuity exercise
- D. Red team exercise
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 63
Which of the following tools can help to detect suspicious or unauthorized changes to critical system configuration files?
- A. Ifconfig
- B. Nessus
- C. Tripwire
- D. Logstash
- E. Netcat
Answer: C
Explanation:
Tripwire is a file integrity monitoring tool that helps detect unauthorized or suspicious changes to critical system configuration files. It compares the current state of files to known baselines and alerts administrators if any unauthorized changes are made.
NEW QUESTION # 64
When performing an investigation, a security analyst needs to extract information from text files in a Windows operating system. Which of the following commands should the security analyst use?
- A. grep
- B. findstr
- C. awk
- D. sigverif
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 65
Organizations considered "covered entities" are required to adhere to which compliance requirement?
- A. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA)
- B. International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 27001
- C. Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS)
- D. Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX)
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 66
Which three disk image formats are used for evidence collection and preservation? (Choose three.)
- A. EXT4
- B. AFF
- C. APFS
- D. RAW(DD)
- E. E01
Answer: B,D,E
Explanation:
RAW(DD): This format is a sector-by-sector copy of a disk and is commonly used for evidence collection in digital forensics.
E01: The E01 format is a popular disk image format that includes features like compression, encryption, and hash verification, commonly used in evidence collection.
AFF: The Advanced Forensic Format (AFF) is another disk image format used in forensics, offering features like compression and metadata.
NEW QUESTION # 67
The "right to be forgotten" is considered a core tenet of which of the following privacy-focused acts or regulations?
- A. GDPR
- B. PPA
- C. COPPA
- D. HIPPA
- E. CCPA
Answer: A
Explanation:
The "right to be forgotten" is a core tenet of the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), which is a privacy and data protection law in the European Union. This right allows individuals to request the deletion of their personal data from organizations' records under certain conditions, ensuring privacy and control over their personal information.
NEW QUESTION # 68
Which of the following is considered a weakness or gap in a security program that can be exploited to gain unauthorized access?
- A. Risk
- B. Vulnerability
- C. Threat
- D. Asset
Answer: B
Explanation:
A vulnerability is a weakness or gap in a security program, system, or application that can be exploited by attackers to gain unauthorized access. Identifying and mitigating vulnerabilities is a key part of any security program.
NEW QUESTION # 69
Which three tools are used for integrity verification of files? (Choose three.)
- A. pgp32
- B. ent
- C. md5deep
- D. sha256sum
- E. md5sum
Answer: C,D,E
Explanation:
sha256sum: This tool calculates the SHA-256 hash of a file, which can be used for integrity verification by comparing the hash value with a known, trusted value.
md5sum: This tool calculates the MD5 hash of a file, which can also be used to verify its integrity by checking against a known hash value.
md5deep: This is a tool that provides recursive MD5 hash calculation, which can be useful for verifying the integrity of multiple files at once.
NEW QUESTION # 70
An organization that recently suffered a ransomware attack found that its backups were faulty. Which of the following steps could BEST ensure reliable backups in the future?
- A. Backing up all data to solid-state storage.
- B. Conducting a full asset inventory assessment.
- C. Implementing periodic tests of backups.
- D. Storing backups at an offsite location.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Implementing periodic tests of backups ensures that the backups are functional and reliable when they are needed. Regular testing helps verify that the data can be restored successfully and that the backup process is working correctly, which is crucial for effective recovery from an attack like ransomware.
NEW QUESTION # 71
What is the BEST process to identify the vendors that will ensure protection and compliance with security and privacy laws?
- A. Security and privacy review
- B. Risk assessment
- C. Penetration testing
- D. Vulnerability assessment
Answer: B
Explanation:
A risk assessment is the best process to identify vendors that can ensure protection and compliance with security and privacy laws. This process involves evaluating the risks associated with different vendors, assessing their ability to meet security and privacy requirements, and determining how they manage data protection. It helps to ensure that vendors adhere to relevant laws and standards, minimizing the organization's exposure to security and privacy risks.
NEW QUESTION # 72
Which approach to cybersecurity involves a series of defensive mechanisms that are layered to protect valuable data and information?
- A. Defense in depth
- B. Network segmentation
- C. Tiered security
- D. Endpoint detection and response
Answer: A
Explanation:
Defense in depth is a cybersecurity strategy that uses multiple layers of security controls and measures to protect data and systems. This layered approach ensures that if one security measure is bypassed, others will still provide protection, making it more difficult for attackers to succeed.
NEW QUESTION # 73
During which phase of a vulnerability assessment would a security consultant need to document a requirement to retain a legacy device that is no longer supported and cannot be taken offline?
- A. Identifying critical assets
- B. Conducting post-assessment tasks
- C. Performing a vulnerability scan
- D. Determining scope
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 74
After a security breach, a security consultant is hired to perform a vulnerability assessment for a company's web application. Which of the following tools would the consultant use?
- A. Hydra
- B. Kismet
- C. tcpdump
- D. Nikto
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 75
The incident response team has completed root cause analysis for an incident. Which of the following actions should be taken in the next phase of the incident response process? (Choose two.)
- A. Drafting a recovery plan for the incident
- B. Providing a briefing to management
- C. Investigating responsible staff
- D. Training staff for future incidents
- E. Updating policies and procedures
Answer: A,E
NEW QUESTION # 76
A first responder notices a file with a large amount of clipboard information stored in it. Which part of the MITRE ATT&CK matrix has the responder discovered?
- A. Exfiltration
- B. Lateral movement
- C. Discovery
- D. Collection
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 77
A company is reviewing the results of the Nikto scan, and they determined that several internal web servers (likely associated with internal web applications) have a number of vulnerabilities. They also noticed several servers that have returned click-jacking vulnerabilities. Which option should be used to remediate this issue?
- A. Modify the HTTP X-Frame-Options.
- B. Modify the SSL cipher configuration.
- C. Upgrade the SSL version.
- D. Update the SSL server certificate.
Answer: A
Explanation:
To remediate clickjacking vulnerabilities, the X-Frame-Options HTTP header should be used. This header can prevent a web page from being embedded into an iframe, which is a common technique exploited by clickjacking attacks. By setting the X-Frame-Options to DENY or SAMEORIGIN, the server can block unauthorized embedding of content in frames, thus protecting the web application from clickjacking.
NEW QUESTION # 78
Which of the following should normally be blocked through a firewall?
- A. NTP
- B. SMTP
- C. SNMP
- D. POP3
Answer: C
Explanation:
SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is typically used for network management and monitoring but can be a security risk if not properly secured. SNMP can provide attackers with valuable information about network devices if exposed to the internet, which is why it is generally blocked through firewalls unless absolutely necessary and securely configured.
NEW QUESTION # 79
According to company policy, all accounts with administrator privileges should have suffix _j a. While reviewing Windows workstation configurations, a security administrator discovers an account without the suffix in the administrator's group. Which of the following actions should the security administrator take?
- A. Review the system log on a domain controller.
- B. Review the security log on the affected workstation.
- C. Review the security log on a domain controller.
- D. Review the system log on the affected workstation.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 80
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