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NEW QUESTION # 84
Which of the following is a Routed Protocol?
- A. Internet Protocol (IP)
- B. Domain Name Service (DNS)
- C. Routing Information Protocol (RIP)
- D. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)
Answer: A
Explanation:
A routed protocol is a protocol by which data can be routed. It provides appropriate addressing information in its internet layer or network layer to allow a packet to be forwarded from one network to another network. Examples of routed protocols are the Internet Protocol (IP) and Internetwork Packet Exchange (IPX). IP is the most widely used routed protocol on the Internet and other networks. It assigns a unique logical address to each device and enables data to be fragmented, reassembled, and routed across multiple networks. Reference:
Routing v/s Routed Protocols in Computer Network
Routing protocol - Wikipedia
CCNA Certification: Routed Protocols vs Routing Protocols
What is the difference between Routing Protocols and Routed Protocols
NEW QUESTION # 85
How does adopting a serverless model impact application development?
- A. reduces the operational overhead necessary to deploy application code
- B. costs more to develop application code because it uses more compute resources
- C. slows down the deployment of application code, but it improves the quality of code development
- D. prevents developers from focusing on just the application code because you need to provision the underlying infrastructure to run the code
Answer: A
Explanation:
List three advantages of serverless computing over
CaaS: - Reduce costs - Increase agility - Reduce operational overhead
NEW QUESTION # 86
Which two pieces of information are considered personally identifiable information (PII)? (Choose two.)
- A. Profession
- B. Name
- C. Birthplace
- D. Login 10
Answer: B,C
NEW QUESTION # 87
Which item accurately describes a security weakness that is caused by implementing a "ports first" data security solution in a traditional data center?
- A. You may not be able to assign the correct port to your business-critical applications.
- B. You may have to open up multiple ports and these ports could also be used to gain unauthorized entry into your datacenter.
- C. You may have to use port numbers greater than 1024 for your business-critical applications.
- D. You may not be able to open up enough ports for your business-critical applications which will increase the attack surface area.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 88
What is a characteristic of the National Institute Standards and Technology (NIST) defined cloud computing model?
- A. requires the use of only one cloud service provider
- B. enables on-demand network services
- C. requires the use of two or more cloud service providers
- D. defines any network service
Answer: B
Explanation:
Cloud computing is not a location but rather a pool of resources that can be rapidly provisioned in an automated, on-demand manner.
NEW QUESTION # 89
Which Palo Alto Networks tool is used to prevent endpoint systems from running malware executables such as viruses, trojans, and rootkits?
- A. Cortex XDR
- B. AutoFocus
- C. Expedition
- D. App-ID
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cortex XDR is a cloud-based, advanced endpoint protection solution that combines multiple methods of prevention against known and unknown malware, ransomware, and exploits. Cortex XDR uses behavioral threat protection, exploit prevention, and local analysis to stop the execution of malicious programs before an endpoint can be compromised. Cortex XDR also enables remediation on the endpoint following an alert or investigation, giving administrators the option to isolate, terminate, block, or quarantine malicious files or processes. Cortex XDR is part of the Cortex platform, which provides unified visibility and detection across the network, endpoint, and cloud. Reference:
Cortex XDR - Palo Alto Networks
Endpoint Protection - Palo Alto Networks
Endpoint Security - Palo Alto Networks
Preventing Malware and Ransomware With Traps - Palo Alto Networks
NEW QUESTION # 90
What differentiates knowledge-based systems from behavior-based systems?
- A. Behavior-based systems pull from a previously stored database that distinguishes "bad".
- B. Behavior-based systems find the data that knowledge-based systems store.
- C. Knowledge-based systems pull from a previously stored database that distinguishes "bad". C.
Knowledge-based systems try to find new, distinct traits to find "bad" things.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 91
Which network firewall operates up to Layer 4 (Transport layer) of the OSI model and maintains information about the communication sessions which have been established between hosts on trusted and untrusted networks?
- A. Static packet-filter
- B. Group policy
- C. Stateless
- D. Stateful
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Stateful packet inspection firewalls Second-generation stateful packet inspection (also known as dynamic packet filtering) firewalls have the following characteristics:
They operate up to Layer 4 (Transport layer) of the OSI model and maintain state information about the communication sessions that have been established between hosts on the trusted and untrusted networks.
They inspect individual packet headers to determine source and destination IP address, protocol (TCP, UDP, and ICMP), and port number (during session establishment only) to determine whether the session should be allowed, blocked, or dropped based on configured firewall rules.
After a permitted connection is established between two hosts, the firewall creates and deletes firewall rules for individual connections as needed, thus effectively creating a tunnel that allows traffic to flow between the two hosts without further inspection of individual packets during the session.
This type of firewall is very fast, but it is port-based and it is highly dependent on the trustworthiness of the two hosts because individual packets aren't inspected after the connection is established.
NEW QUESTION # 92
Which analysis detonates previously unknown submissions in a custom-built, evasion-resistant virtual environment to determine real-world effects and behavior?
- A. Dynamic
- B. Bare-metal
- C. Static
- D. Pre-exploit protection
Answer: A
Explanation:
The WildFire cloud-based malware analysis environment is a cyber threat prevention service that identifies unknown malware, zero-day exploits, and advanced persistent threats (APTs) through static and dynamic analysis in a scalable, virtual environment.
NEW QUESTION # 93
Order the OSI model with Layer7 at the top and Layer1 at the bottom.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 94
Which method is used to exploit vulnerabilities, services, and applications?
- A. DNS tunneling
- B. port evasion
- C. port scanning
- D. encryption
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Attack communication traffic is usually hidden with various techniques and tools, including:
Encryption with SSL, SSH (Secure Shell), or some other custom or proprietary encryption Circumvention via proxies, remote access tools, or tunneling. In some instances, use of cellular networks enables complete circumvention of the target network for attack C2 traffic.
Port evasion using network anonymizers or port hopping to traverse over any available open ports Fast Flux (or Dynamic DNS) to proxy through multiple infected endpoints or multiple, ever-changing C2 servers to reroute traffic and make determination of the true destination or attack source difficult DNS tunneling is used for C2 communications and data infiltration
NEW QUESTION # 95
Match the Palo Alto Networks WildFire analysis verdict with its definition.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 96
Web 2.0 applications provide which type of service?
- A. IaaS
- B. SaaS
- C. FWaaS
- D. PaaS
Answer: B
Explanation:
Web 2.0 applications provide the type of service known as Software as a Service (SaaS). SaaS is a cloud computing model that allows users to access and use web-based applications over the internet, without having to install or maintain any software on their own devices. SaaS applications are hosted and managed by a third-party provider, who is responsible for the security, performance, availability, and updates of the software. SaaS applications are typically accessed through a web browser or a mobile app, and offer features such as user-generated content, social networking, collaboration, and interoperability. Examples of Web 2.0 SaaS applications include Facebook, X, Wikipedia, Gmail, and Salesforce. Reference:
What Is Web 2.0? Definition, Impact, and Examples - Investopedia
Web 2.0 - Wikipedia
[What is SaaS? Software as a service (SaaS) definition - Salesforce.com]
NEW QUESTION # 97
Given the graphic, match each stage of the cyber-attack lifecycle to its description.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 98
You have been invited to a public cloud design and architecture session to help deliver secure east west flows and secure Kubernetes workloads.
What deployment options do you have available? (Choose two.)
- A. VM-Series
- B. PA-Series
- C. Panorama
- D. CN-Series
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
To deliver secure east-west flows and secure Kubernetes workloads in a public cloud environment, you have two deployment options available: VM-Series and CN-Series.
VM-Series is a virtualized form factor of the Palo Alto Networks next-generation firewall that can be deployed in public cloud platforms such as AWS, Azure, Google Cloud, and Oracle Cloud. VM-Series provides comprehensive network security and threat prevention capabilities for protecting your cloud workloads and applications from cyberattacks. VM-Series can also integrate with native cloud services and third-party tools to enable automation, orchestration, and visibility across your cloud environment. VM-Series supports various deployment scenarios, such as securing internet-facing applications, protecting hybrid connectivity, segmenting internal networks, and enabling secure DevOps12.
CN-Series is a containerized form factor of the Palo Alto Networks next-generation firewall that can be deployed in Kubernetes environments. CN-Series provides granular network security and threat prevention capabilities for protecting your Kubernetes pods and namespaces from cyberattacks. CN-Series can also integrate with Kubernetes network plugins and services to enable dynamic policy enforcement, service discovery, and visibility across your Kubernetes clusters. CN-Series supports various deployment scenarios, such as securing ingress and egress traffic, enforcing microsegmentation, and enabling secure DevSecOps34.
Reference:
VM-Series in Public Cloud
VM-Series Deployment Guide
CN-Series in Kubernetes
CN-Series Deployment Guide
NEW QUESTION # 99
Match the IoT connectivity description with the technology.
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation
Short-range wireless:
Adaptive Network Technology+ (ANT+): ANT+ is a proprietary multicast wireless sensor network technology primarily used in personal wearables, such as sports and fitness sensors.
Bluetooth/Bluetooth Low-Energy (BLE): Bluetooth is a low-power, short-range communications technology primarily designed for point-to-point communications between wireless devices in a hub-and-spoke topology. BLE (also known as Bluetooth Smart or Bluetooth 4.0+) devices consume significantly less power than Bluetooth devices and can access the internet directly through 6LoWPAN connectivity.
Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) over Low-Power Wireless Personal Area Networks (6LoWPAN): 6LoWPAN allows IPv6 traffic to be carried over low-power wireless mesh networks. 6LoWPAN is designed for nodes and applications that require wireless internet connectivity at relatively low data rates in small form factors, such as smart light bulbs and smart meters.
Wi-Fi/802.11: The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) defines the 802 LAN protocol standards. 802.11 is the set of standards used for Wi-Fi networks typically operating in the 2.4GHz and 5GHz frequency bands. The most common implementations today include:
802.11n (labeled Wi-Fi 4 by the Wi-Fi Alliance), which operates on both 2.4GHz and 5GHz bands at ranges from 54Mbps to 600Mbps
802.11ac (Wi-Fi 5), which operates on the 5GHz band at ranges from 433Mbps to 3.46 Gbps
802.11ax (Wi-Fi 6), which operates on the 2.4GHz and 5GHz bands (and all bands between 1 and 6GHz, when they become available for 802.11 use) at ranges up to 11Gbps Z-Wave: Z-Wave is a low-energy wireless mesh network protocol primarily used for home automation applications such as smart appliances, lighting control, security systems, smart thermostats, windows and locks, and garage doors.
Zigbee/802.14: Zigbee is a low-cost, low-power wireless mesh network protocol based on the IEEE 802.15.4 standard. Zigbee is the dominant protocol in the low-power networking market, with a large installed base in industrial environments and smart home products.
NEW QUESTION # 100
Why have software developers widely embraced the use of containers?
- A. Containers require separate development and production environments to promote authentic code.
- B. Containers are host specific and are not portable across different virtual machine hosts.
- C. Containers share application dependencies with other containers and with their host computer.
- D. Containers simplify the building and deploying of cloud native applications.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 101
Which analysis detonates previously unknown submissions in a custom-built, evasion-resistant virtual environment to determine real-world effects and behavior?
- A. Dynamic
- B. Bare-metal
- C. Static
- D. Pre-exploit protection
Answer: A
Explanation:
Dynamic analysis is a method of malware analysis that executes the malware in a controlled environment and observes its behavior and effects. Dynamic analysis can reveal the malware's network activity, file system changes, registry modifications, and other indicators of compromise. Dynamic analysis is performed by Palo Alto Networks WildFire, a cloud-based service that analyzes unknown files and links from various sources, such as email attachments, web downloads, and firewall traffic. WildFire uses a custom-built, evasion-resistant virtual environment to detonate the submissions and generate detailed reports and verdicts. WildFire can also share the threat intelligence with other Palo Alto Networks products and partners to prevent future attacks. Reference: WildFire Overview, WildFire Features, WildFire Dynamic Analysis
NEW QUESTION # 102
If an endpoint does not know how to reach its destination, what path will it take to get there?
- A. The endpoint will broadcast to all connected network devices.
- B. The endpoint will forward data to another endpoint to send instead.
- C. The endpoint will not send the traffic until a path is clarified.
- D. The endpoint will send data to the specified default gateway.
Answer: D
Explanation:
If an endpoint does not know how to reach its destination, it will send data to the specified default gateway. A default gateway is a device that routes traffic from a local network to other networks or the internet. The endpoint will use the default gateway's IP address as the next hop for packets that are destined for unknown or remote networks. The default gateway will then forward the packets to the appropriate destination or another gateway, based on its routing table. Reference:
Fundamentals of Network Security, Module 2: Networking Concepts, Lesson 2: IP Addressing and Routing1 PCCET Study Guide, Section 2.2: Describe IP Addressing and Routing2
NEW QUESTION # 103
Which Palo Alto Networks tool is used to prevent endpoint systems from running malware executables such as viruses, trojans, and rootkits?
- A. Cortex XDR
- B. AutoFocus
- C. Expedition
- D. App-ID
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 104
How does DevSecOps improve the Continuous Integration/Continuous Deployment (CI/CD) pipeline?
- A. DevSecOps does security checking after the application code has been processed through the CI/CD pipeline
- B. DevSecOps improves pipeline security by assigning the security team as the lead team for continuous deployment
- C. DevSecOps ensures the pipeline has horizontal intersections for application code deployment
- D. DevSecOps unites the Security team with the Development and Operations teams to integrate security into the CI/CD pipeline
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 105
Which technique changes protocols at random during a session?
- A. port hopping
- B. hiding within SSL encryption
- C. tunneling within commonly used services
- D. use of non-standard ports
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Port hopping, in which ports and protocols are randomly changed during a session.
NEW QUESTION # 106
When signature-based antivirus software detects malware, what three things does it do to provide protection? (Choose three.)
- A. delete the infected file
- B. quarantine the infected file
- C. remove the infected file's extension
- D. alert system administrators
- E. decrypt the infected file using base64
Answer: A,B,C
NEW QUESTION # 107
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