New 2026 Realistic Free Medical Tests AAPC-CPC Exam Dump Questions and Answer
AAPC-CPC Practice Test Engine: Try These 152 Exam Questions
NEW QUESTION # 48
A sternal closure using sutures is considered inclusive to CPT 33255 and should not be reported separately.
- A. True
- B. False
Answer: A
Explanation:
The statement is true. Regardless of how a sternal closure is performed, it would be considered integral to this, and any other open cardiac procedure, when a sternal approach is used as the method of exposure. If a sternal closure were performed as the only procedure to repair an injury, the closure would then be reported.
NEW QUESTION # 49
If a cardiologist bills an electrocardiogram (93010) in the emergency department and then follows up with the patient a week later for arteriosclerosis, he should bill an established patient E/M.
- A. True
- B. False
Answer: B
Explanation:
The statement is false. According to CPT, a new patient is one who has "not received professional services from the physician." In lieu of this, because the cardiologist only interpreted an electrocardiogram and did not actually provide care to the patient, a new patient E/M service should be billed.
NEW QUESTION # 50
A surgeon performs a craniectomy to excise a meningioma located above the tentorium cerebelli. During the procedure, an extradural hematoma is noted and removed via the same craniectomy site. How should the surgeon report the procedure?
- A. 61512, 61312-59
- B. 61519, 61314-51
- C. 61312-22
- D. 0
Answer: D
Explanation:
Surgical procedures on the nervous system are identified by where inside the skull they occur. A meningioma is being excised from above the tentorium cerebelli, otherwise known as supratentorial (CPT 61512). The removal of an extradural hematoma is inclusive to the primary craniectomy code because the finding is incidental and the same surgical site is used for its removal.
If the surgeon had to create a separate incision to access the extradural hematoma, that excision could be reported separately with modifier 59.
NEW QUESTION # 51
A 74-year-old male patient recently had a bone marrow transplant due to aplastic anemi a. At his follow-up visit with the doctor, his blood is drawn and sent to the laboratory to determine if the engraftment was successful. The laboratory evaluates the immature reticulocyte fraction (IRF) using an automated cell counter and total reticulocyte by way of a manual count. What codes should the laboratory report?
- A. 85046, D61.9
- B. 85046, 85044, D61.9, Z94.81
- C. 85046, 85044, D61.9
- D. 85046, D61.9, Z79.89
Answer: A
Explanation:
When a hematologr procedure that could be billed alone is encompassed in another code, only the most complex of the tvo should be reported. Because CPT 85046 includes the reticulocyte count billing CPT 85044 as secondary despite using a different method would be considered an unbundling of services. Per ICD-IO-CM guidelines, an organ or tissue transplant status code is for use "only if there are no complications or malfunctions of the organ or tissue replaced." As the testing is to determine whether the engraftment was successful, a bone marrow transplant status code would not be appropriate until deemed by the provider.
NEW QUESTION # 52
If all the following statements were documented by the anesthesiologist in one record, which would be chosen as the start time for anesthesia services?
- A. Propofol is administered to the patient intravenously.
- B. Medical history and vital signs for the patient are obtained prior to the surgery.
- C. Request for services is received for an operation that begins in 1 hour.
- D. A pulse oximeter is attached to the patient,s finger while in the operating room.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Anesthesia time begins when the provider begins to prepare the patient for anesthesia services. This usually will take place in the operating room or an equivalent area. Although answer B would not be incorrect as a chosen starting point, answer C is more accurate according to the anesthesia time definition. Preoperative evaluations of the patient, such as a history intake, cannot be counted as anesthesia time.
NEW QUESTION # 53
A patient is seen in the emergency room with a thermal burn to the left thigh because of a fire. The patient denies feelings of hypothermi a. Vitals are obtained, and a physical examination reveals that approximately 4% of the body is affected by second-degree burns, and nonviable tissue needs to be removed to avoid the risk of infection. After consent is obtained, the physician debrides the wound, cleanses the area, and applies a gauze. The patient is discharged and told to follow up with their primary care physician in 2 days. What CPT code(s) should be reported for this encounter?
- A. 16020, 99282
- B. 99282-25, 16020
- C. 99283-25, 16020
- D. 0
Answer: C
Explanation:
When billing for physician services in the emergency room, it is appropriate to report a standalone E/M when the documentation supports its necessity in determining the need for appropriate treatment. Modifier 25 is necessary to the E/M code when being billed alongside a procedure and/or surgery to indicate a separately billable service. In this case, the documentation supports decision-making of moderate complexity. CPT code 99283 meets these criteria, whereas CPT code 99282 reflects a medical decision-making of low complexity and does not accurately portray the services rendered. The emergency room visit is always the first listed code, followed by the procedure and/or surgery performed.
NEW QUESTION # 54
A physician performs a thyroidectomy on a 26-year-old female patient with thyroid cancer. A radical neck dissection with a partial parathyroidectomy and autotransplantation of two parathyroid glands is also completed in the same session. W'hat CPT code(s) should the physician report?
- A. 60254, 60500-51, 60512-51
- B. 60254, 60500-51, 60512
- C. 60254, 60512-52
- D. 0
Answer: C
Explanation:
The CPT code for a thyroidectomy with a radical neck dissection is 60254 and sequenced first because it is the primary procedure with the highest RVU. CPT 60500, which describes a parathyroidectomy, is bundled into a thyroidectomy. Therefore, the two procedures should never be reported together. Parathyroid autotransplantation (CPT 60512) involves the removal of all four parathyroid glands. If not all four glands are removed, report the code with modifier 52 to indicate reduced services. As this is an add-on code, do not append modifier 51.
NEW QUESTION # 55
Which statement is true regarding the diaphragm?
- A. It separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity.
- B. It forms tendons, ligaments, cartilage, and fat.
- C. It performs an important function in blood flow.
- D. It is a collection of organs held together by connective tissue.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The diaphragm separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity by means of skeletal muscle. When the diaphragm contracts, air is drawn into the lungs. It therefore plays a key role in respiration. The mediastinum is surrounded by loose connective tissue and contains several anatomical structures including the heart. Connective tissue is distributed throughout the body to form tendons, ligaments, cartilage, and fat.
NEW QUESTION # 56
Which form is used to make a patient aware of the potential monetary liability they will have if their procedure is not likely to be covered by Medicare?
- A. Advance Beneficiary Notice
- B. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Release
- C. Payment Plan Contract
- D. National Coverage Determination
Answer: A
Explanation:
National Coverage Determination is a reference guide for physicians to determine which services are covered by Medicare. The HIPAA Release is a form that must be signed by the patient prior to release of medical records and can be revoked at any time. The HIPAA Privacy Rule is in place to protect the patien& health information.
NEW QUESTION # 57
A male patient with cancerous cells in his right bronchus is given 150 mg of porfimer sodium via a single and slow intravenous injection and told to return to the office in 3 days.
Upon his return, the physician enters the right bronchus by means of a bronchoscope and activates LED for a total of 38 minutes to destroy the cancer cells. What should the physician report?
- A. 31641, 96570, 96571, 96409,J9600x2
- B. 96573, 96409, J9600x2
- C. 31641, 96570, 96571, J9600x2
- D. 96573, J9600x2
Answer: C
Explanation:
Photodynamic therapy applies a photosensitizing agent by either an external or endoscopic application. An external application is applied directly onto a patient's lesions, whereas an endoscopic application is an injection into the bloodstream, where it is absorbed by cells all over the body. Based on this differentiation, the documentation supports only an endoscopic application.
The code notes for CPT 96570 and 96571 indicate they are add-on codes to the bronchoscopy procedure, which is represented by CPT 31641. Any drug administration is inclusive to photodynamic therapy, making CPT 96409 not separately billable.
NEW QUESTION # 58
A patient undergoes surgery with anesthesia and is arousable with painful stimulation. What is the level of sedation the patient MOST likely received?
- A. Minimal sedation
- B. General anesthesia
- C. Deep sedation
- D. Moderate sedation
Answer: C
Explanation:
Minimal, moderate, and deep sedation all allow the patient to undergo a procedure without pain and without being completely unconscious. If a patient receives minimal sedation, they are responsive after receiving verbal stimulation. Moderate sedation causes a patient to respond only after tactile stimulation. General anesthesia causes the patient to be completely unarousable, even with painful stimulation.
NEW QUESTION # 59
The physician suspects malignancy and decides to remove two lesions from the patient's back to confirm. The size of the first lesion has a diameter of 0.5 cm, and the excised diameter is 1.0 cm. The size of the second lesion has a diameter of 0.3 cm, and the excised diameter is 1.5 cm. Which CPT code(s) should be reported?
- A. 11600, 11600-51
- B. 11401, 11402-59
- C. 11401, 11402-51
- D. 11402, 11401-59
Answer: D
Explanation:
Without a patholoy report to confirm malignancy, the excision code assumes that the lesion is benign. Code selection is based on the excision size, not the size of the lesion, and the more complex code takes priority in sequence, eliminating answer C. Answers A and B can be incorrect choices due to CPT guidelines outlining that when coding more than one excision, the appropriate modifier would be 59 on each additional procedure.
NEW QUESTION # 60
Which condition would describe a patient with a physical status modifier of P3?
- A. Multiple organ dysfunction
- B. A recent myocardial infarction
- C. Sepsis
- D. Poorly controlled diabetes
Answer: D
Explanation:
The physical status modifiers are used to identify different levels of complexity associated with the patient's condition. Additionally, they provide information surrounding the circumstances of the anesthesia service and are a useful tool to support medical necessity. Modifier P3 describes a patient with a severe systemic disease, such as uncontrolled diabetes and/or hypertension.
Multiple organ dysfunction is reported with modifier P5, which describes a patient who is not expected to survive without an operation. A recent myocardial infarction and sepsis both describe a severe systemic disease that is a threat to life and is reported with modifier P4.
NEW QUESTION # 61
V codes are related to which procedures/products?
- A. Orthotic procedures
- B. Durable medical equipment
- C. Hearing services
- D. Enteral therapy
Answer: C
Explanation:
Durable medical equipment is represented by E codes, orthotic procedures are L codes, and enteral therapy is inclusive to B codes in the HCPC manual.
NEW QUESTION # 62
Which is NOT a violation of Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)?
- A. A hospital with a multilayered cybersecurity defense experiences a data breach by acybercriminal.
- B. An encrypted laptop is stolen from a physician,s vehicle.
- C. An employee drops off patient records on a physician,s porch.
- D. An office does not perform a risk assessment of electronic health information.
Answer: A
Explanation:
HIPAA is in place to reduce the level of risk associated with a potential violation and/or breach. In answer C, even though a breach has occurred, the hospital has appropriate preventative measures in place and is not in violation of HIPAA. Leaving a laptop in an unattended vehicle or medical records outside is high-risk behavior that gives opportunity for an unauthorized person to access protected health information (PHI) and/or electronic protected health. In answer D, a medical practice is required to perform a risk analysis to PHI and/or ePHI and recti$ any failures within a timely manner.
NEW QUESTION # 63
A physician performs an esophagogastroduodenoscopy on a patient who has GERD. A single tissue sample is obtained from the upper gastrointestinal tract using biopsy forceps. A reflux test was also done and a bravo capsule temporarily attached to the esophageal wall to monitor pH levels. What procedures should the physician report?
- A. 43235, 91035
- B. 43239, 91035
- C. 43235, 91034
- D. 43239, 91034
Answer: B
Explanation:
To report an esophagogastroduodenoscopy, see CPT code range 43233-43259. In this scenario, the procedure is not considered diagnostic (43235) because the physician is stating the patient has GERD. Additionally, the tissue sample was obtained by means of biopsy forceps and not by brushing or washing. The secondary procedure is a reflux test and an esophageal pH test by means of a bravo capsule, which evaluates the level of acid refluxing into the esophagus. Although CPT 91035 doesn't specifically state a capsule in the description of the code, it would fall under a
"mucosal attached" placement. A nasal catheter was not used, so reporting CPT 91034 would be incorrect.
NEW QUESTION # 64
A gastroenterologist performs a gastric bypass surgery on an obese patient with a body mass index of 52. During the procedure, the size of the stomach is reduced by 77%; the intestine is bypassed from the duodenum and then attached to the ileum. The pylorus is preserved and left intact. Which CPT code best describes the surgery performed?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: C
Explanation:
In this scenario, the gastroenterologist performed a procedure known as a biliopancreatic diversion with duodenal switch (BPD/DS). A BPD/DS removes a portion of the stomach and transfers parts of the duodenum and small intestine to the lower end of the large intestine in an effort to limit intestinal absorption for weight loss. CPT codes 43842-43843 describe gastric restrictive procedures without gastric bypass. However, gastric bypass was done in rearranging the small intestine to connect to the ileum.
NEW QUESTION # 65
Which type of anesthesia is NOT separately reportable?
- A. Spinal anesthesia
- B. Metacarpal blocks
- C. Monitored anesthesia care
- D. Regional anesthesia
Answer: B
Explanation:
CPT surgery guidelines uphold that local infiltration, metacarpal/metatarsal/digital block, or topical anesthesia is always included in the surgical package. Under monitored anesthesia care (MAC), a patient is sedated but typically still aware, and the presence of qualified anesthesia personnel is required. Spinal and regional anesthesia is used for a variety of different procedures and is also separately reportable.
NEW QUESTION # 66
The laboratory collected blood to test the patient's carbon dioxide, chloride, potassium, sodium, and glucose levels. Select the CPT codes that the laboratory will report.
- A. 80053-52
- B. 80051, 80053
- C. 80051, 82947
- D. 80051, 82947-59
Answer: C
Explanation:
It would not be appropriate to add modifier 52 to 80053 in answer A In answer C, 80051 and
80053 would not be reported together because CPT guidelines state that "when or more panel codes include the same tests, report the panel with the highest number of tests in common." Because the glucose test is not included in 80051, 82947 would be added to 80051, with no modifier 59, because the procedures are routinely billed together, thus eliminating answer D.
NEW QUESTION # 67
A 39-year-old female patient has developed a diaphragmatic hernia after an episode of domestic violence. The surgeon repairs the hernia through an incision into the abdomen. The patient is later discharged with no complications. How should this encounter be reported?
- A. 39541, K44.O, T76.1 IXA
- B. 39540,K44.9, T 76.1 IXA
- C. 39540, K44.9, T74.11XA Y07.9
- D. 39541, K44.O, T74.11YA Y07.9
Answer: C
Explanation:
Acute trauma results from a single incident, whereas chronic trauma is repeated, usually over the course of months or years. In this scenario, the documentation does not specify, so the coder should assume acute trauma. There is no mention of obstruction, so ICD-IO-CM code selection is K44.9, followed by the cause of the hernia. Vvhen an exam shows evidence of abuse, the abuse is no longer considered suspected but confirmed.
NEW QUESTION # 68
Under the oversight of the pediatrician, a nurse reviews the vaccine and allergr history of a 13-year-old established patient just prior to administering a live varicella virus vaccine subcutaneously. What procedure code(s) should be reported?
- A. 99211-25, 90716, 90460
- B. 90716, 90471
- C. 90716, 90460
- D. 99211-25, 90716, 90471
Answer: B
Explanation:
Although CPT 99211 can be reported for limited assessments performed by nonphysician staff members, the vaccine and allergy history intake is considered vaccine related and not separately reportable. CPT 90460 is reported when a physician provides counseling about the benefits and risks associated with the vaccine and signs and symptoms that would indicate an adverse reaction.
Because the physician did not document seeing the patient at this encounter, report CPT 90471 for the administration of the immunization.
NEW QUESTION # 69
A primary care physician is requesting a second opinion to determine which strain of Ebolavirus the patient has. The specimen is sent to a pathologist, who carefully examines it.
A written report is sent promptly back to the primary care physician, confirming Zaire Ebolavirus and recommending immediate isolation and emergency care. What code should be reported by the pathologist?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
A clinical pathology consultation was rendered at the request of the primary care physician.
The consultation is considered high based on the level of medical decision making. The CDC describes Ebola disease as a "rare and often deadly illness." Therefore, the number and complexity of problems addressed is high, as is the management ofthe disease due to the decision to escalate this case to hospital level care. E/M codes can be billed only when a patient themself is evaluated by the provider. In this case, the pathologist only evaluated a specimen.
NEW QUESTION # 70
Which is NOT considered inclusive to hydration services?
- A. Subcutaneous catheter access
- B. Flush solution
- C. Catheter declotting
- D. Catheter flush
Answer: C
Explanation:
Catheter access, standard supplies such as a flush solution, and the flush at the end of the infusion are all considered necessary to facilitate the infusion and are inclusive to CPT codes
96360-96361. Declotting a catheter involves the injection of a thrombolytic agent to dissolve the clot and is separately reportable with CPT 36593.
NEW QUESTION # 71
A patient presents to urgent care with complaints of a sore throat, a temperature of 100.2, and pain while urinating. The provider examines the patient and collects a throat swab and urine sample. The following codes are then entered on the patient's claim: R30.9, R07.O, R50.9, N39.O, J03.8, and B95.3. What code(s) should be removed?
- A. R30.9, J02.9
- B. 395.3
- C. R30.9, 102.9 and R50.9
- D. N39.O, 103.00
Answer: C
Explanation:
Pain while urinating 830.9) is a symptom of a urinary tract infection (N39.O), and a sore throat (R07.0) and fever 850.9) are symptoms of acute tonsillitis caused by Streptococcus (103.00).
Neither ofthese three codes should be reported because ICD-IO-CM guidelines stipulate that when a definitive diagnosis is present, signs and/or symptoms should not be additionally listed on the claim.
NEW QUESTION # 72
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